Guest Post by Dr. Robert Fastiggi, Professor of Dogmatic Theology
Dr. Robert Fastiggi, Bishop Kevin M. Britt Chair of Dogmatic Theology and Christology, has been at Sacred Heart Major Seminary in Detroit since 1999. Dr. Fastiggi received an A.B. in Religion (summa cum laude) from Dartmouth College in 1974; a M.A. in Theology from Fordham University in 1976; and a Ph.D. in Historical Theology from Fordham in 1987. During his time at Sacred Heart, Dr. Fastiggi has taught courses in Ecclesiology, Christology, Mariology, church history, sacramental theology, and moral theology. He is a member of the Society for Catholic Liturgy, the Mariological Society of America, the International Marian Association, and a corresponding member of the Pontifical Marian Academy International (P.A.M.I).
He served as the executive editor of the 2009-2013 supplements to the New Catholic Encyclopedia and the co-editor of the English translation of the 43rd edition of the Denzinger-Hünermann compendium published by Ignatius Press in 2012. He also revised and updated the translation of Ludwig Ott's Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma for Baronius Press in 2018. I have compiled several of his articles (a number of them, exclusively) on my blog.
[from private correspondence, with his permission]
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All of the following material is from Dr. Fastiggi, save for a few instances of bracketed comments and my initial question that I asked him (modified a bit presently):
Is the belief that the Blessed Virgin Mary is free from actual sin an infallible one in Catholicism? I looked up Ludwig Ott's classification and it was sententia fidei proxima. How does that relate to infallibility? Could one hold that Mary did commit or may have committed actual sin and still be a Catholic in good standing, and not be regarded as "anti-Mary" or heterodox? It's a question that should, I think, be directed towards someone like yourself, who is qualified to address it.
Personally, I certainly believe that she didn't actually sin -- whatever the technical classification is -- , because I think that would be fitting, just as her Immaculate Conception and Assumption were. I also think that Holy Scripture teaches her sinlessness in Luke 1:28 and I've defended these views for over thirty years.
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I think a strong case can be made that Mary's freedom from actual sin is infallible by virtue of the ordinary universal Magisterium.
[With regard to how] the Catholic Church understands Rom 3:23: "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God": the "all" must have exceptions since Jesus was sinless. Therefore, Mary can also be an exception. I also like to bring up the example of the good angels. They never sinned.
[Dave: see my related article, "All Have Sinned" vs. a Sinless, Immaculate Mary? (1996; revised and posted at National Catholic Register on 12-11-17)]
I should also note that Pius IX, in Ineffabilis Deus, teaches that Mary has "such a plentitude of innocence and sanctity that, under God, none greater can be known and, apart from God, no mind could ever succeed in comprehending." (Denz.-H 2800). If Mary was able to commit personal sins, we could easily think of a creature of higher holiness: namely one who could never commit personal sins. What Pius IX says in Ineffabilis Deus completely rules out the possibility of personal sin. Although the object of the definition of Ineffabilis Deus is the dogma of Mary's Immaculate Conception, Mary's immunity from personal sin has a logical connection to her Immaculate Conception.